The Counsel General, and, indeed, the Welsh Government in general, consistently say that they respect the judgment of the Welsh people in voting to leave the European Union on 23 June last year in the referendum. Will he accept that the purported use of the royal prerogative to trigger article 50 in this case is qualitatively different from all previous exercises of the royal prerogative because this is in pursuance of the decision of the British people in that referendum, and therefore, triggering article 50 would be to fulfil the express wish of the British people rather than to frustrate it, and any attempt by the Welsh Government to stand in the way of the judgment of the Welsh people is to be deprecated?